2015年1月28日星期三

ITCertTest IBM M2170-741 exam practice questions and answers

Your sales training should not end here. IBM encourages you to deepen your sales skills by attending additional seminars, teleconferences, self-paced study, etc. Refer to the IBM PartnerWorld Training and Certification page.
* Passing this test counts towards PartnerWorld Premier and Advanced membership levels. It also entitles you to use the mastery qualification title on your business card.  This test meets the sales skill criteria for the Software Value Incentive/Software Value Plus.
Test information
  • Number of questions: 40
  • Time allowed in minutes: 60
  • Required passing score: 70%
  • Languages: English, German, Italian, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Spanish Castilian

After you pass a test, be sure to add your Candidate ID to your company's PartnerWorld profile!  You will receive an e-mail from the test vendor after the test which will provide your Candidate ID.



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M2170-741 BootcampExam Code: M2170-741
Exam Name: IBM i2 Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v2
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Last Update: 01-28,2015
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NO.1 What are the core capabilities of NDI?
A. Intelligence repository
B. GIS interface
C. Visual analysis
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A:Exploit multiple repositories either: within IAP or the main repository or "in place" where they live
outside IAP - For example, existing iBase systems. C:Analysts rapidly turns vast, disparate data sets
into actionable intelligence using advanced visual analysis tools on complex data sets

NO.2 Which of the following is not a key part of thei2 value proposition for financial services?
A. Built on open standards, allowing easy integration with legacy systems and other IBM offerings
B. Makes the existing case management team significantly more effective and efficient, thereby
contributing to quick ROI.
C. Scales on an affordable and secure basis
D. Complements existing fraud detection capabilities
Answer: C

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NO.3 How can NDI help a customer with multiple types of intelligence (SIGINT and HUMINT) and data
sources?
A. Collaboration services
B. Data acquisition capabilities, including federation
C. Scalability
D. Geospatial capabilities
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Clients need to work collaboratively and requireinteroperability across all services.

NO.4 Which of the following is not a benefit of the ILE solution?
A. Improve officer safety
B. Informant recruiting
C. Share information across jurisdictions
D. Access data by role
Answer: B

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NO.5 Multiple visualization options facilitate deeper insight to information. Visualizations available in
Analyst's Notebook include:
A. Timeline, link analysis and social network analysis
B. Dashboard and bar chart
C. Scatter plot, link analysis and data flow diagram
D. Histogram, tree map and table
Answer: A

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Explanation:
* Understand the critical timeline of events or patterns within criminal activities using powerful
temporal analysis tools. *Quickly highlight key individuals and relationships and their connections to
key events with core link analysis capabilities. *Identify key individuals within target networks more
quickly using social network analysis

NO.6 Which of the following best describes the benefits Miami-Dade Police Department experience
using i2 ILE?
A. Following a lengthy installation / integration project. MDPD now have a single solution to access all
data stores, internal and external, reducing the number of investigative staff required.
B. A single solution from the officer on the street to command staff supports tactical lead generation
through access to historical records, assisting in generating links, associations and reports.
C. A single solution from the officer on the street to command staff supports strategic planning
andresource deployment, with a single point to search all data stores allowing fast lead generation
and case resolution.
D. A and C
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A:MDPD is leveraging the RLEX and COPLINKdata structure to integrate the various inhousedata
sources. C:Field Investigation and Crime Analysis
Improve workflow of criminal identification and investigation capabilities
Visualization of criminal and location information
Trend and Analysis of criminal history
Situational awareness
Proactive alerting to the officers by using Predictive modeling for faster leads of suspects

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2015年1月27日星期二

Citrix 1Y0-253 exam study materials

The Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:
Assessing Infrastructure Needs for the NetScaler Implementation
Designing the NetScaler Implementation
Building the Solution to Enable Remote Access
Securing the NetScaler
Integrating with Citrix, Microsoft and Third-party Technologies
Configuring Redundancy
Customizing Traffic in the NetScaler Implementation
Setting Up Auditing, Monitoring and Reporting for the NetScaler Implementation
Troubleshooting Issues on NetScaler
The 1Y0-253 exam was developed to measure the minimum knowledge and skills required to implement Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for app and desktop solutions. Passing this exam means a candidate demonstrated the minimum level of knowledge and skills required to install, administer and/or operate enterprise environments consisting of NetScaler Gateway 10.5.
The 1Y0-253 exam is a 65-question exam written in English.

The passing score for this exam is 64%.



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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator configures load balancing in an environment to load balance a Web
server. The administrator needs to enhance availability in the case that the virtual server goes down.
Which two options could the administrator configure to meet the load balancing needs for this
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Redirect URL
B. Reverse monitoring
C. Backup virtual server
D. Content Switching virtual server
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which two tasks must a Citrix Administrator complete to enable Client Certificate
Authentication on the NetScaler Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Create a pre-authentication policy.
B. Create an LDAP authentication policy.
C. Import the root certificate onto the NetScaler Gateway.
D. Import all client certificates onto the NetScaler Gateway.
E. Enable the Client Authentication option on the virtual server.
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 An administrator created a service for a Web Interface server that is encrypted by an SSL
certificate.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor
that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it with a test user's credentials?
A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName user
-domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -encrypted
B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName user
-domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -secure YES
C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName user
-domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -destPort 443
D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName user
-domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -encrypted -secure YES
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator could generate a trace file using the __________ and the __________.
(Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. "nstrace.sh" command at the NetScaler shell
B. Diagnostics option in the Configuration Utility GUI
C. "start nstrace" command at the command-line interface
D. "nstcpdump.sh" command at the command-line interface
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which two methods could an administrator use to ensure that all HTTP traffic will be redirected
to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server after configuring a NetScaler Gateway virtual server? (Choose
two.)
A. Configure a URL transformation policy, then bind it globally.
B. Configure a rewrite policy to change all the HTTP requests, then bind it to the NetScaler Gateway
virtual server.
C. Configure a responder policy based on the FQDN pointing to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server,
then bind it globally.
D. Configure an HTTP virtual server with the same NetScaler Gateway virtual server IP address, then
configure a redirect URL on it.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Scenario: An administrator has configured three Web Interface sites. The sites are configured to
fail over to another site if a site failure occurs. After a failure occurs, the failing site is NOT available
for connections for one hour. The administrator wants to lessen the amount of time that the failing
site is unavailable.
What can an administrator do to lessen the amount of time the site is unavailable?
A. Adjust the 'socket timeout' setting
B. Adjust the 'bypass any failed server' setting
C. Configure the 'disconnected session timer' setting
D. Configure Health Monitoring and Recovery to restart the server upon failure
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which action could an administrator take to configure auditing of logon events for all the
employees who connected through the NetScaler Gateway for the current day?
A. Run "df -h" from the NetScaler command-line interface.
B. Configure a Syslog policy to send events to a remote server.
C. Run "cat aaa.debug" from the NetScaler command-line interface.
D. Review logon events through Reporting > Access Gateway > AAA > AAA Sessions.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Scenario: After a restart of a single NetScaler, users complain that the logon page has changed.
An administrator plans to verify that a startup script exists and contains the necessary command.
Where can the administrator find the startup script?
A. /etc
B. /dev
C. /nsconfig
D. /netscaler
Answer: C

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CABA Real DumpsExam Code: CABA
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NO.1 A Prototype is a:
A. Fully operational representation of a process or system
B. Limited operational representation of a process or system
C. Non-operational representation of a process or system
D. Flow diagram of a process or system
Answer: C

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NO.2 As a Business Analyst you are required to analyze the existing ways the organization works and
compare it with the way their competition works. In this scenario, which tool would be more
effective for you?
A. Benchmarking
B. Scatter Plot
C. Control Chart
D. Pareto Chart
Answer: A

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NO.3 The effort required to transfer a program from one hardware or software
platform/environment to another is called ________.
A. Reusability
B. Flexibility
C. Portability
D. Maintainability
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which process measure focuses on how well the product or service performs in the customer
environment?
A. Process Measure
B. Output Measures
C. Outcome Measures
D. Community Measures
Answer: C

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NO.5 A data store in a DFD represents a:
A. Sequential File
B. Repository of Data
C. Random Access Memory
Answer: B

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NO.6 Inspections, reviews, and dynamic testing are __________ activities in the Software
Development Lifecycle (SDLC).
A. Training
B. Quality Assurance
C. TQM
D. Quality Control
E. Risk Analysis
Answer: D

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NO.7 Quality is an attribute of:
A. A Product
B. A Service
C. A Process
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 The following are different causes of defects, EXCEPT:
A. Ambiguous Requirements
B. Poor Design
C. Incorrect Translation of the Design into Code
D. Signed Off Requirements
Answer: D

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NO.1 A customer needs to build a QlikView application using data in text files. A new data file is
created every day and stored in a folder on the customer's network named s. \userfiles.
The file name is in the form dataYYYYMMDD.txt, where YYYYMMDD represents the current date,
such as data20111231.txt.
Which data load strategy should a developer use to load all of the customer's data files each day?
A. the statement 'Directory s. \userfiles\*;' preceding the Load statement
B. the 'Wildcard Load' feature by setting the 'File Location' in Document Properties
C. 'Load * From [s. \userfiles\data*.txt] (ansi, txt, delimiter is '\t', embedded labels);'
D. 'Load * From_Field (s. \userfiles\, 'data*.txt') (ansi, txt, delimiter is '\t', embedded labels);'
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer needs an application to reload in a short time period. The source tables are log files
that are appended to on a daily basis.
Which performance tuning option should a developer use?
A. the QVD files to store the source tables
B. the Partial Reload command with the append option
C. the Load prefix Buffer with the incremental option
D. the Load prefix Buffer and set the Keep Outdated QVD Buffers in the Document Properties
Answer: C

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Topic 5, Deliver the QlikView Application

NO.3 A developer has a Container Object with multiple charts and each chart has many different
expressions.
The developer needs to provide users with a method to easily obtain information related to each
chart and the expressions within.
How can the developer fulfill this requirement?
A. design a help graphic for each chart and set it as the caption background
B. create a Text Object containing help information for each chart and link each Chart Object to its
corresponding Text Object using QlikView's Linked Objects feature
C. enter a thorough description of each chart and its expressions in the Text in Chart property on the
Layout tab
D. enter a thorough description of each chart and its expressions in the Help Text property on the
Caption tab
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has 30 target values that are used to evaluate the quality of an organization's
facilities. At least half the target values are changed monthly by the business users.
What is the most efficient way for the developer to store, access, and maintain the target values?
A. save the target names and values in an external file, load them into a QlikView table, and use a
FOR loop to assign the values to variables
B. manually create a variable for each value in Expression Overview and maintain them in Expression
Overview
C. create a Variables tab in the load script and use 30 LET statements to assign the values to variables
D. embed the target values into each expression in which they are required
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer needs to add data from a Microsoft Access database to a data model intended to
run on a 64 bit Windows Server.
How should the developer proceed?
A. from the script editor, on the Data tab, under Database, choose 'ODBC' from the Database pull
down, assure the 'Force 32 bit' check box is selected, and then click the 'Connect' button
B. from the script editor, on the Data tab, under Database, choose 'ODBC 32 bit' from the Database
pull down and then click the 'Connect' button
C. from the script editor, on the Data tab, click on the 'database conversion' button and convert the
database from a 32 bit to 64 bit database
D. from the script editor, on the Data tab, under Database choose 'ODBC' from the Database pull
down and then click the 'Connect' button
Answer: A

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NO.6 A client has a data set with two tables.
The Customer table has fields CustomerID, AssignedTo, FirstName, and LastName. The
Orders table has fields CustomerID, AssignedTo, Product, and Quantity.
The AssignedTo field holds an employee reference.
Users need to see Customers and Orders by employee.
The employee assigned to the Customer may not be the same as the employee assigned
to the Order.
Which technique should be used in the script to meet the requirement?
A. load the tables leaving the automatic associations
B. comment out the AssignedTo from the Orders table
C. comment out the AssignedTo from the Customer table
D. use Rename Field syntax to alias one of the AssignedTo fields
E. create a concatenated key of CustomerID and AssignedTo in both tables
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which technique should a developer use to clearly describe dimensions and measures for end
users who need to use collaborative objects?
A. add field metadata tags to fields in the load script
B. put a How To sheet in the application
C. put descriptive information in each object's help text
D. add a system table to the application
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer needs to have QlikView deployed to tablet devices.
When creating the QVW application, which two actions must a developer take to meet the
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A. convert the QVW application into a .mob document on the server
B. ensure that screen resolution is appropriate for the device
C. convert the QVW application into a HTML5 document
D. create a specific QVW application for each device
E. use only sheet objects suitable for tablet devices
Answer: B,E

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NO.1 Which type of rule defines the portion of a work object that typically contains information
about people, companies and organizations involved in a work object?
A. Operator
B. Access Group
C. Work Parties
D. Organization
Answer: C

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NO.2 Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single row in a Decision Table rule using multiple
"OR" conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three are standard local actions? (Choose three.)
A. AttachALetter
B. AttachAFile
C. AttachANote
D. AttachAScreenShot
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 During which phase of the methodology is the Application Profile wizard used?
A. Production
B. Elaboration-Construction
C. Inception
D. Transition
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Decision Rule type is best used to display nested "if" statements?
A. Map Value
B. When Condition
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree
Answer: D

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NO.6 A user requirement is a measurement of system usability.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the result of clicking the Where-am-I ( ) icon on a work object form?
A. The user's worklist is displayed
B. The user's Organization, Division, and Unit information from the clipboard is displayed within a
separate XML window
C. The user is directed to the Pega Developer Network (PDN) website
D. The Visio diagram of the current flow rule is displayed in a separate window with an arrow marking
the current assignment
Answer: D

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NO.8 How is Case Management defined in PRPC?
A. A work object reporting tool accessible through the manager portal
B. A category of reports which perform Business Activity Monitoring within PRPC
C. The different ways work can be organized within PRPC to support different types of work object
processing
D. A menu item under the Tools menu which reports on selected criteria for work objects
Answer: C

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Free download HP certification HP5-H09D exam practice questions and answers

Delta - Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions

HP ExpertOne

Exam ID HP5-H09D
Exam type Web-based online exam used as delta/recertification exams for affiliate certification
Exam duration 30 minutes
Exam length 20 questions
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages English
Related Certifications
Supporting courses These recommended courses help you prepare for the exam:

Exam description

This guide is to set expectations about the context of the certification exam and to help candidates prepare.  Recommended training to prepare for this exam can be found at The Learning Center.  It is important to note that although training is recommended for exam preparation, successful completion of the training alone does not guarantee that you will pass the exam.  In addition to training, exam items are based on knowledge gained from on-the-job experience and application as well as other supplemental reference material that may be specified in this guide.
 

Who should take this exam?

This exam is for HP and Partner sales professionals wanting to display their base level of knowledge regarding HP’s Client Virtualization Solutions.  Sample job roles include HP Authorized Partner Sales Professionals.
 

Exam contents

This exam has 20 questions.

Tips for taking this exam

These tips will help you while taking the exam.

  Take the time to read the entire question and consider all of the options carefully before you answer. If the question indicates that it features an exhibit, study the exhibit and reread the question. Make sure to select the answer that correctly responds to the question that is asked — not simply an answer that includes some correct information. If the question asks for more than one answer, remember to select each correct answer. You will not receive partial credit for a partially correct answer.

Objectives

This exam validates that you can successfully perform the following:
53%
HP Client Virtualization Portfolio
 
  • Introduction—Values and benefits of HP Thin Clients
  • HP Thin Client overview
  • HP Thin Client software
  • Key takeaways
47%
HP Client Virtualization Competitive Selling
 
  • Competitive selling methodology
  • Competitor overview—The competitor’s company
  • Competitor overview—The competitor’s approach
  • Competitor overview—The competitor’s products/solutions
  • Create a game plan
  • Key takeaways




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NO.1 What is the next step in HP's thin client sales approach after identifying the opportunity?
A. Engage other resources that can help win the sale: and conduct a technical evaluation.
B. Close the sale: and deploy the solution.
C. Identify and sell on capability of customization, and emphasize that channel partners are a route to
market.
D. Research the customer, and build a plan to conduct a quality discovery, assessment and qualifying
meeting.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which operating system is included with HP mt41 mobile thin clients?
A. HP Thinpro
B. Windows 8 Pro
C. HP Smart-zero
D. Windows Embedded Standard 7E
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why do HP t310 Zero Clients deliver amazing performance and require no patches or updates?
A. because they use hardware-based decompression technology for PCoIP protocol
B. because they use hardware-based security for IP packet checking
C. because the operating system is refreshed when the system is turned on
D. because the operating system is hard coded into the AMD processor
Answer: C

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NO.4 What should be the focus of a discussion about re-purposing old PCs versus replacing them with
HP thin clients?
A. The value of a PC and its peripherals versus the cost of a new HP thin client
B. Total cost of ownership, cost involving energy efficiency, operations, and manageability of devices
C. Acquisition costs versus sacrificing the value of the original cost of the PC
D. The ability to use Web Services for an operating system streaming situation
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is an important customer benefit of thin computing?
A. The customer can easily upgrade onboard memory for better application responsiveness.
B. The customer can have a wide variety of internal storage choices, including solid state hard drives.
C. The customer can see more visual real estate via multiple monitor support features.
D. The customer can perform manageability and support from the data center.
Answer: A

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2015年1月26日星期一

ITexamGuide provides to Oracle 1z0-418 test materials

Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-418 / 1Z0-418
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: OPN Certified Specialist , Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Certified Implementation Specialist
Number of Questions: 78
Exam Product Version: Fusion Human Capital Management,
Passing Score: 70%
Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against 11g.

format: Multiple Choice


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NO.1 The HR Administrator/Line Manager has entered the details of a potential hire. However, the
application indicates the existence of a duplicate person record.
Which three actions can the HR Administrator/Line Manager take?
A. rehire the employee
B. delete the duplicate record
C. no action (Employee Work Relation Exists)
D. append the last name with the number of duplicate records found
E. create a new work relationship
F. modify the existing work relationship to reflect the new one
Answer: A,B,F

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Explanation:
Note: Real-time duplicate prevention finds use in data quality service consuming applications such as
Oracle Fusion Receivables and Oracle Fusion Customer Center. When users try to enter a new person,
organization, or location record through their UI into the Oracle Fusion trading community registry,
the service finds all possible duplicate records that may exist in the registry for an entered record,
and assigns a match score to each potential duplicate identified. Based on the match score returned
by the service and the threshold settings in the configuration, the calling application can provide the
option to either select an existing duplicate record or continue to create a new record.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Customer Data Management Implementation Guide 11g,
Consuming Applications

NO.2 Your company is planning to move its HR system from a legacy application to Fusion. You are
looking at a deployment option that allows you to be free from maintaining the infrastructure and
applications and gives you more flexibility in terms of upgrading to latest releases of Fusion
Applications. You are not expecting any large customizations to be done.
What is the best deployment model you can opt for?
A. On-Premise
B. SaaS
C. Hosted
D. Homegrown
E. Hybrid
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Oracle Fusion Human Capital Management (HCM) delivers a complete suite of human resource and
talent management applications, all available as Software as a Service (SaaS).
Note: The adoption of Software as a Service (SaaS) or On-Demand presents several technical and
business challenges for all players involved - independent software vendors (ISVs), hosting services
providers and the customers. The technical challenges for SaaS providers include support for multi-
tenancy, integration, security, usability, customization and service-level management. Oracle SaaS
Platform consisting of virtualization, database, middleware and management software provides a
comprehensive platform that addresses these challenges and runs on grid.
Reference: HR in the Cloud: Bringing Clarity to SaaS Myths and Manifestos, Oracle White Paper

NO.3 Fusion security authorizes end users to access which securable application artifacts created
using Oracle Application Development Framework (Oracle ADF)?
A. Individual permissions to access work areas, dashboards, task flows, pages, reports batch
programs, and BI subject areas
B. Individual permission to reset their password for the login application
C. Set of users requesting access based on the job level
D. Multiuser permission with validation of password length, alphanumeric, and special character
usage
E. individual permission to access web services and webpages only
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Note: Oracle Fusion Applications is secure as delivered. The Oracle Fusion security approach tightly
coordinates various security concerns of the enterprise, including:
*The ability to define security policies to specify the allowed operations on application resources,
including viewing and editing data and invoking functions of the application.
*The ability to enforce security policies by roles assigned to end users, and not directly enforced on
the end users of the system. (C)
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Extensibility Guide 11g, Customizing Security for ADF
Application Artifacts

NO.4 Which Oracle Fusion HCM product helps HR managers and professionals in proactively
Identifying potential issues and taking corrective actions?
A. Profile Management
B. Workforce Predictions
C. Workforce Life Cycle Manager
D. Goal Management
E. Talent Review
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Forward looking management strategies Oracle Fusion Workforce Predictions uses indicators, current
and historical, to predict performance and attrition, determine corrective action through "what if"
scenario modeling, and provide the ability to implement that corrective action. For example, a top
performer might be predicted to have a high likelihood of attrition or become a poor performer
because of too many hours worked while not taking enough vacation time and the last pay increase
given was lower than what their peers received.
Reference: ORACLE FUSION WORKFORCE PREDICTIONS, Data Sheet

NO.5 In fusion HCM security, what kind of access does the user and role API application framework
allow?
A. access to predefined security profile to relevant Job or Duty roles
B. access to implementation Users without managing job roles
C. access to identity information in a uniform and nonportable manner regardless of the particular
underlying identity repository
D. access to identity information in a uniform and portable manner regardless of the particular
underlying identity repository
E. access to implementation Users managing job, Data, and Duty roles
Answer: D

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Explanation:
User and role: OPSS's User and Role API framework allows applications to access identity information
(users and roles) in a uniform and portable manner regardless of the particular underlying identity
repository. The User and Role API frees the application developer from the intricacies of particular
identity sources.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Security Leveraging Oracle Identity Management, Oracle White
Paper

NO.6 You got promoted from manager to senior manager effective January 30, 2011. Your line
manager does a keyword search by entering "senior manager" as the keyword value and "January 15,
2011" as the effective as-on-date value.
What is the search result?
A. Your name appears in the search result.
B. Your name appears twice in the search result.
C. Your name appears in the search result with the designation "Senior Manager".
D. Your name appears in the search result with the designation "Manager".
E. Your name does not appear in the search result.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have terminated a sales manager "X" as of May 31, 2011 and promoted another employee
"Y" to this position as of June 15, 2011. Sales Manager is a single incumbent position.
Identify two correct details that would be displayed in the system as of June 5, 2011.
A. The position details will display the current position FTE as 1, current incumbent FTE as 0, and the
differential FTE as 1.
B. The position details will display the current position FTE as 1, current incumbent FTE as 1, and the
differential FTE as 0.
C. The current field will be blank.
D. The current incumbent field will have employee "Y".
E. The incumbent details of "X" and "Y" can be viewed by clicking "Show History" in the position
incumbent details screen.
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
Note:
*Full-time equivalent (FTE) is a unit that indicates the workload of an employed person (or student) in
a way that makes workloads comparable across various contexts. FTE is often used to measure a
worker's involvement in a project, or to track cost reductions in an organization. An FTE of 1.0 means
that the person is equivalent to a full-time worker, while an FTE of 0.5 signals that the worker is only
half-time.
*By default, FTE is the result of dividing assignment working hours by standard working hours, which
are generally those of a full-time worker. For example, if a person's working hours on an assignment
are 20 and the standard working hours for the department are 40, the FTE for the assignment is 0.5.
If no standard-working-hours value is available for the enterprise, legal employer, position, or
department, an assignment has no default FTE value. You can edit the FTE value on any assignment.
*. Fixed roles tend to endure over time, surviving multiple incumbents. Industries that manage roles
rather than individuals, where roles continue to exist after individuals leave, typically model the
workforce using positions.

NO.8 Action type identifies the type of business process associated with an action and determines
what happens when you select that action. As part of implementing Fusion HCM, action types are
associated with actions.
Which two statements are correct regarding action types?
A. Action types are seeded.
B. Every action type can have multiple actions within it.
C. An action type cannot be associated with user defined actions.
D. If "Termination" is an action, "Normal Termination" is an action type.
E. Additional action types can be created.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
Note: Action Type
*Action type identifies the type of business process associated with the action and determines what
happens when you select an action. An action type is associated with one or more predefined
actions. You can create your own actions and associate them with the predefined action types. For
example, the Hire an Employee action type is associated with the Hire action. You could create an
action Hire Part-Time and associate it with the Hire an Employee action type. Your action appears in
the Action list of values on the Hire an Employee page. To hire a part-time employee, you could select
the Hire Part-Time action instead of the predefined Hire action.
*Action types are predefined and can contain one or more actions. You may associate your actions
with the predefined action types but not create your own action types. (A, not E)
Note 2: Seeded items are items that are provided out of the box.

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