2015年1月26日星期一

ITexamGuide provides to Oracle 1z0-418 test materials

Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-418 / 1Z0-418
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: OPN Certified Specialist , Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Certified Implementation Specialist
Number of Questions: 78
Exam Product Version: Fusion Human Capital Management,
Passing Score: 70%
Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against 11g.

format: Multiple Choice


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1z0-418 BootcampExam Code: 1z0-418
Exam Name: Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Essentials
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Last Update: 01-26,2015
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NO.1 The HR Administrator/Line Manager has entered the details of a potential hire. However, the
application indicates the existence of a duplicate person record.
Which three actions can the HR Administrator/Line Manager take?
A. rehire the employee
B. delete the duplicate record
C. no action (Employee Work Relation Exists)
D. append the last name with the number of duplicate records found
E. create a new work relationship
F. modify the existing work relationship to reflect the new one
Answer: A,B,F

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Explanation:
Note: Real-time duplicate prevention finds use in data quality service consuming applications such as
Oracle Fusion Receivables and Oracle Fusion Customer Center. When users try to enter a new person,
organization, or location record through their UI into the Oracle Fusion trading community registry,
the service finds all possible duplicate records that may exist in the registry for an entered record,
and assigns a match score to each potential duplicate identified. Based on the match score returned
by the service and the threshold settings in the configuration, the calling application can provide the
option to either select an existing duplicate record or continue to create a new record.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Customer Data Management Implementation Guide 11g,
Consuming Applications

NO.2 Your company is planning to move its HR system from a legacy application to Fusion. You are
looking at a deployment option that allows you to be free from maintaining the infrastructure and
applications and gives you more flexibility in terms of upgrading to latest releases of Fusion
Applications. You are not expecting any large customizations to be done.
What is the best deployment model you can opt for?
A. On-Premise
B. SaaS
C. Hosted
D. Homegrown
E. Hybrid
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Oracle Fusion Human Capital Management (HCM) delivers a complete suite of human resource and
talent management applications, all available as Software as a Service (SaaS).
Note: The adoption of Software as a Service (SaaS) or On-Demand presents several technical and
business challenges for all players involved - independent software vendors (ISVs), hosting services
providers and the customers. The technical challenges for SaaS providers include support for multi-
tenancy, integration, security, usability, customization and service-level management. Oracle SaaS
Platform consisting of virtualization, database, middleware and management software provides a
comprehensive platform that addresses these challenges and runs on grid.
Reference: HR in the Cloud: Bringing Clarity to SaaS Myths and Manifestos, Oracle White Paper

NO.3 Fusion security authorizes end users to access which securable application artifacts created
using Oracle Application Development Framework (Oracle ADF)?
A. Individual permissions to access work areas, dashboards, task flows, pages, reports batch
programs, and BI subject areas
B. Individual permission to reset their password for the login application
C. Set of users requesting access based on the job level
D. Multiuser permission with validation of password length, alphanumeric, and special character
usage
E. individual permission to access web services and webpages only
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Note: Oracle Fusion Applications is secure as delivered. The Oracle Fusion security approach tightly
coordinates various security concerns of the enterprise, including:
*The ability to define security policies to specify the allowed operations on application resources,
including viewing and editing data and invoking functions of the application.
*The ability to enforce security policies by roles assigned to end users, and not directly enforced on
the end users of the system. (C)
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Extensibility Guide 11g, Customizing Security for ADF
Application Artifacts

NO.4 Which Oracle Fusion HCM product helps HR managers and professionals in proactively
Identifying potential issues and taking corrective actions?
A. Profile Management
B. Workforce Predictions
C. Workforce Life Cycle Manager
D. Goal Management
E. Talent Review
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Forward looking management strategies Oracle Fusion Workforce Predictions uses indicators, current
and historical, to predict performance and attrition, determine corrective action through "what if"
scenario modeling, and provide the ability to implement that corrective action. For example, a top
performer might be predicted to have a high likelihood of attrition or become a poor performer
because of too many hours worked while not taking enough vacation time and the last pay increase
given was lower than what their peers received.
Reference: ORACLE FUSION WORKFORCE PREDICTIONS, Data Sheet

NO.5 In fusion HCM security, what kind of access does the user and role API application framework
allow?
A. access to predefined security profile to relevant Job or Duty roles
B. access to implementation Users without managing job roles
C. access to identity information in a uniform and nonportable manner regardless of the particular
underlying identity repository
D. access to identity information in a uniform and portable manner regardless of the particular
underlying identity repository
E. access to implementation Users managing job, Data, and Duty roles
Answer: D

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Explanation:
User and role: OPSS's User and Role API framework allows applications to access identity information
(users and roles) in a uniform and portable manner regardless of the particular underlying identity
repository. The User and Role API frees the application developer from the intricacies of particular
identity sources.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Security Leveraging Oracle Identity Management, Oracle White
Paper

NO.6 You got promoted from manager to senior manager effective January 30, 2011. Your line
manager does a keyword search by entering "senior manager" as the keyword value and "January 15,
2011" as the effective as-on-date value.
What is the search result?
A. Your name appears in the search result.
B. Your name appears twice in the search result.
C. Your name appears in the search result with the designation "Senior Manager".
D. Your name appears in the search result with the designation "Manager".
E. Your name does not appear in the search result.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have terminated a sales manager "X" as of May 31, 2011 and promoted another employee
"Y" to this position as of June 15, 2011. Sales Manager is a single incumbent position.
Identify two correct details that would be displayed in the system as of June 5, 2011.
A. The position details will display the current position FTE as 1, current incumbent FTE as 0, and the
differential FTE as 1.
B. The position details will display the current position FTE as 1, current incumbent FTE as 1, and the
differential FTE as 0.
C. The current field will be blank.
D. The current incumbent field will have employee "Y".
E. The incumbent details of "X" and "Y" can be viewed by clicking "Show History" in the position
incumbent details screen.
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
Note:
*Full-time equivalent (FTE) is a unit that indicates the workload of an employed person (or student) in
a way that makes workloads comparable across various contexts. FTE is often used to measure a
worker's involvement in a project, or to track cost reductions in an organization. An FTE of 1.0 means
that the person is equivalent to a full-time worker, while an FTE of 0.5 signals that the worker is only
half-time.
*By default, FTE is the result of dividing assignment working hours by standard working hours, which
are generally those of a full-time worker. For example, if a person's working hours on an assignment
are 20 and the standard working hours for the department are 40, the FTE for the assignment is 0.5.
If no standard-working-hours value is available for the enterprise, legal employer, position, or
department, an assignment has no default FTE value. You can edit the FTE value on any assignment.
*. Fixed roles tend to endure over time, surviving multiple incumbents. Industries that manage roles
rather than individuals, where roles continue to exist after individuals leave, typically model the
workforce using positions.

NO.8 Action type identifies the type of business process associated with an action and determines
what happens when you select that action. As part of implementing Fusion HCM, action types are
associated with actions.
Which two statements are correct regarding action types?
A. Action types are seeded.
B. Every action type can have multiple actions within it.
C. An action type cannot be associated with user defined actions.
D. If "Termination" is an action, "Normal Termination" is an action type.
E. Additional action types can be created.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
Note: Action Type
*Action type identifies the type of business process associated with the action and determines what
happens when you select an action. An action type is associated with one or more predefined
actions. You can create your own actions and associate them with the predefined action types. For
example, the Hire an Employee action type is associated with the Hire action. You could create an
action Hire Part-Time and associate it with the Hire an Employee action type. Your action appears in
the Action list of values on the Hire an Employee page. To hire a part-time employee, you could select
the Hire Part-Time action instead of the predefined Hire action.
*Action types are predefined and can contain one or more actions. You may associate your actions
with the predefined action types but not create your own action types. (A, not E)
Note 2: Seeded items are items that are provided out of the box.

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Latest training guide for Oracle 1z1-418

Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-418 / 1Z0-418
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: OPN Certified Specialist , Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Certified Implementation Specialist
Number of Questions: 78
Exam Product Version: Fusion Human Capital Management,
Passing Score: 70%
Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against 11g.

format: Multiple Choice




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Exam Name: Oracle Fusion Global Human Resources 2014 Essentials
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NO.1 As an HR Specialist in your company, you are responsible for setting up the Performance rating
model. You navigate to Manage Ratings Model and select seeded "Performance Rating Model".
Out of the four tabs available to update, the Distributions tab is used only by which Oracle Fusion
product in determining target distributions?
A. Goal Management
B. Compensation Management
C. Performance Management
D. Talent Review
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Create a rating model distribution to set target percentages for worker overall performance ratings
that your organization prefers for each rating level of a rating model. The comparison of the target
rating model distribution to the actual distribution of overall ratings managers give their workers on
completed performance documents appears in the Rating Distribution analytic that appears on the
Performance Manager Overview page.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Marketing Implementation Guide 11g, Manage Target Ratings
Distribution

NO.2 Which Oracle Fusion HCM product helps HR managers and professionals in proactively
Identifying potential issues and taking corrective actions?
A. Profile Management
B. Workforce Predictions
C. Workforce Life Cycle Manager
D. Goal Management
E. Talent Review
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Forward looking management strategies Oracle Fusion Workforce Predictions uses indicators, current
and historical, to predict performance and attrition, determine corrective action through "what if"
scenario modeling, and provide the ability to implement that corrective action. For example, a top
performer might be predicted to have a high likelihood of attrition or become a poor performer
because of too many hours worked while not taking enough vacation time and the last pay increase
given was lower than what their peers received.
Reference: ORACLE FUSION WORKFORCE PREDICTIONS, Data Sheet

NO.3 You created a free-form content type and added it to the person profile type but yet it is not
visible on the person profile page.
What do you think needs to be done additionally to ensure that the content type is visible on the
person profile page?
A. The new content item must be added to the HRMS content subscriber code.
B. A new rating model has to be created.
C. The new content type must be added to the HRMS content subscriber code.
D. A new instance qualifier has to be created.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
You cannot view the content section for in the person profiles until you add the new content type to
the HRMS content subscriber code.
Note: Free-form content types enable you to capture information in a profile that you do not need to
store in the content library. For example, you can set up a free-form content type to store
information about the previous employment information for your workers.
A free-form content type contains only a code, name, and a description, and does not have any
properties defined for it until you add it to a profile type. Free-form content types do not include any
content items.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Marketing Implementation Guide, Subscribers
Reference: Fusion Applications Help, Define Workforce Profiles FAQs

NO.4 The HR Administrator/Line Manager has entered the details of a potential hire. However, the
application indicates the existence of a duplicate person record.
Which three actions can the HR Administrator/Line Manager take?
A. rehire the employee
B. delete the duplicate record
C. no action (Employee Work Relation Exists)
D. append the last name with the number of duplicate records found
E. create a new work relationship
F. modify the existing work relationship to reflect the new one
Answer: A,B,F

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Explanation:
Note: Real-time duplicate prevention finds use in data quality service consuming applications such as
Oracle Fusion Receivables and Oracle Fusion Customer Center. When users try to enter a new person,
organization, or location record through their UI into the Oracle Fusion trading community registry,
the service finds all possible duplicate records that may exist in the registry for an entered record,
and assigns a match score to each potential duplicate identified. Based on the match score returned
by the service and the threshold settings in the configuration, the calling application can provide the
option to either select an existing duplicate record or continue to create a new record.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Customer Data Management Implementation Guide 11g,
Consuming Applications

NO.5 Identify the three business subprocesses offered under the Compensation Management
category of the Oracle Fusion HCM product family.
A. Manage Benefits
B. Manage Compensation
C. Manage Incentive Compensation
D. Manage Compensation Budgets
E. Manage Personal Contributions
Answer: B,D,E

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Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Compensation Management 11g, Compensation Guide

NO.6 If there is only one valid grade for the job or position, the valid value will be automatically
defaulted in the grade field. This can be achieved only if ____________.
A. "Default the Grade from Job/Position (Y/N)" is set to Y
B. "Default the Grade from Job/Position (Y/N)" is set to N
C. "Enforce Valid Grades (Y/N)" is set to Y
D. "Enforce Valid Grades (Y/N)" is set to N
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Default the Grade from the Job or Position (PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION)
If you set this site-level profile option to Yes, and there is only one valid grade for a job or position,
then that grade is used by default in the assignment or employment terms. In addition, if an entry
grade is defined for a position, then that grade is used by default when the user creates a new set of
employment terms or a new assignment.
If you set this profile option to No, which is the default value, then users can select from all
grades.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Workforce Development Implementation Guide 11g, Define
Employment Record Values

NO.7 In fusion HCM security, what kind of access does the user and role API application framework
allow?
A. access to predefined security profile to relevant Job or Duty roles
B. access to implementation Users without managing job roles
C. access to identity information in a uniform and nonportable manner regardless of the particular
underlying identity repository
D. access to identity information in a uniform and portable manner regardless of the particular
underlying identity repository
E. access to implementation Users managing job, Data, and Duty roles
Answer: D

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Explanation:
User and role: OPSS's User and Role API framework allows applications to access identity information
(users and roles) in a uniform and portable manner regardless of the particular underlying identity
repository. The User and Role API frees the application developer from the intricacies of particular
identity sources.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Security Leveraging Oracle Identity Management, Oracle White
Paper

NO.8 You got promoted from manager to senior manager effective January 30, 2011. Your line
manager does a keyword search by entering "senior manager" as the keyword value and "January 15,
2011" as the effective as-on-date value.
What is the search result?
A. Your name appears in the search result.
B. Your name appears twice in the search result.
C. Your name appears in the search result with the designation "Senior Manager".
D. Your name appears in the search result with the designation "Manager".
E. Your name does not appear in the search result.
Answer: D

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HP HP2-H35 training and testing

Sales Essentials of HP Workstations

HP ExpertOne

Exam ID HP2-H35
Exam type Web-Based online exam used in certifications
Exam duration 1 hour 15 minutes
Exam length 50 questions
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages English
Related Certifications
Supporting courses These recommended courses help you prepare for the exam:

Exam description

This exam tests your skills on selling HP Workstation Solutions.

Who should take this exam?


This exam is for HP and Partner sales professionals. It is targeted at individuals who are familiar with the HP Workstations Portfolio.

Examples of job roles are:

• HP Authorized Partner Sales Professional
• HP Workstations Sales Professional



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NO.1 How can HP workstations benefit customers who have traditionally used business desktops in
the geospatial market?
A. By ensuring that customer data is secure and private
B. By relieving bottlenecks that slow down data prep and analysis of large data sets
C. By providing ISV certified support for Microsoft Office applications
D. By providing Thunderbolt technology that improves the speed of international communications
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is a graphic processing unit (GPU) different from a central processing unit (CPU)?
A. A GPU has a larger cache
B. A GPU has fewer cores.
C. A GPU is more highly parallel.
D. A GPU is task-oriented.
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graphics_processing_unit

NO.3 What are the three dominant virtual workstation models?
A. HPC cluster dedicated supercomputer. HPC cloud andworkstation based
B. OS specific. OS agnostic, and OS dependent
C. Remote, pass through GPU, and Virtualized GPU
D. All-in-one, small form factor, large form factor
Answer: C

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Reference:
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NO.4 What message is key to the value of HP workstations?
A. Top of the line performance at a cost below the competition's entry level system
B. Thunderbolt 2 technology included with every HP Z workstation
C. Optional solutions, such as HP Performance Advisor and HP Sure Start
D. Performance, innovation, reliability, and expandability beyond desktop computers
Answer: D

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Reference:
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NO.5 What are military standard 810 tests?
A. Standardized tests that prove the integrity and security of the product development processes
B. Testing that charges and discharges system capacitors many times per second to assure durability
C. Tests that cover extreme temperatures, bumps, vibrations, and high humidity
D. Testing that proves the integrity of the data processing system
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MIL-STD-810

NO.6 What is a benefit of hybrid graphics for HP ZBooks?
A. Capability of using integrated and discrete graphics at the same time
B. Provides graphics that use battery power and external power at the same time
C. Offers the power of discrete graphics when you need it and battery life extension when you don't
D. Enables digital and analog graphics in the same image
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which factor can impact the performance of a storage component?
A. Processor choice
B. Humidity
C. Power supply limitations
D. Protocol limitations
Answer: C

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ITexamGuide provides to HP HP2-H37 test materials

Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions

HP ExpertOne

Exam ID HP2-H37
Exam type Web-Based online exam used in certifications
Exam duration 1 hour 10 minutes
Exam length 50 questions
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages English
Related Certifications
Supporting courses These recommended courses help you prepare for the exam:

Exam description


This guide is to set expectations about the context of the certification exam and to help candidates prepare.  Recommended training to prepare for this exam can be found at The Learning Center.  It is important to note that although training is recommended for exam preparation, successful completion of the training alone does not guarantee that you will pass the exam.  In addition to training, exam items are based on knowledge gained from on-the-job experience and application as well as other supplemental reference material that may be specified in this guide.



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NO.1 Which feature improves security of HP thin client in configurations?
A. HP Velocity
B. Non-OS environment
C. On-board TPM chip
D. Expansion slot
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a benefit of virtualized clients that is important to end-users?
A. Simplified management
B. Lower costs
C. Fast, PC-like performance
D. Unprecedented data security
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which question is best for discovery and assessment?
A. Are you interested in thin clients?
B. Why are you interested in thin clients technology?
C. Is an HP t $20 flexible thin client the best product for you?
D. Do you have more than 30 employees?
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a key concept for selling HP thin clients?
A. Sell on the HP legacy of unparalleled quality rather than companng HP to its competitors.
B. Build value in your services rather than on the product.
C. Sometimes repurposing PCs is the best solution to get the customer into a client virilization
environment quickly.
D. Use active listening to help you gain greater insight into your customer's challenges and to
strengthen your relationship.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are some of the customer benefits of thin computing? (Select three.)
A. More choices of network connectivity
B. Reduced desktop footprint g improved data security
C. Increased software capabilities
D. Increased computing power
E. Reduced energy consumption
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 Which thin client advantage offsets the thin client purchase cost for many customers?
A. Reduction of network bandwidth usage
B. Reduced use of desk space
C. Mobility
D. Conserving IT resources
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is an important customer benefit of thin computing?
A. The customer can have a wide variety of internal storage choices, including solid state hard drives.
B. The customer can easily upgrade onboard memory for better application responsiveness.
C. The customer can perform manageability and support from the data center.
D. The customer can see more visual real estate via multiple monitor support features.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which operating system is included with HP mt41 mobile thin clients?
A. HPThinpro
B. Windows Embedded Standard 7E
C. HP Smart-zero
D. Windows 8 Pro
Answer: B

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Upon completion of the IBM  Smarter Cities Sales study material, you are ready to take the IBM Smarter Cities Sales Mastery Test v1 to become an IBM  Smarter Cities Sales Professional v1*.

Please see sales mastery test policy for important information on non-proctored online test retake policy and test registration/cancellation policies.
Please see FAQs (link is at the bottom of the page).

Skill name: IBM Smarter Cities Sales Professional v1
PartnerWorld skill code: 32016404

Your sales training should not end here. IBM encourages you to deepen your sales skills by attending additional seminars, teleconferences, self-paced study, etc. Refer to the IBM PartnerWorld Training and Certification page.
* Passing this test counts towards PartnerWorld Premier and Advanced membership levels. It also entitles you to use the IBM Smarter Cities Sales Professional title on your business card. This test meets the sales skill criteria for the Software Value Incentive/Software Value Plus.




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NO.1 Which of these is a reason for IBM's leadership with IBM's Intelligent Operations Center (IOC)?
A. IOC was successfully crowdsourced and built using open source software
B. IOC comes from the understanding and patterns of over 2000 Smarter Cities projects
C. IOC has been studied in academia for many years and IBM was able to transfer all the technology
through IBM Academic Initiatives
D. IOC was invented as a test bed for training Watson for the US quiz show Jeopardy!
Answer: B

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NO.2 The key elements of dynamic programs includes:
A. Business User Tools for program creation, configuration, and modification
B. Curam does not support dynamic programs
C. Non-configurable elements
D. A code generation tool of the user's choosing
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Dynamic Programs - deliver pre-built business user configuration tools for rapid configuration of new
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NO.3 What is the major difference between IBM i2 Analyst Notebook and the IBM i2 Analyst's
Notebook Premium offerings?
A. The increased number of clients that can be supported from traditional to mobile
B. A local optimized analysis repository that allows for the collection, management and organizing of
all of information and intelligence at a local level
C. Services Oriented Architecture for greater scalability and extensibility
D. The use of Unicode in the standardization of information for optimal analysis
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Adding IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook Premium to the Intelligence Analysis Platform provides a rich client
for extensive multidimensional analysis.

NO.4 Which types of partners does IBM collaborate with in IOC opportunities?
A. Systems Integration partners, Hardware/Device partners, and Information and Data partners
B. Data Analytics Partners, Application Partners, and Domain Consultants
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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Explanation:
*IBM Intelligent Operations Center can be integrated with other systems to share data, and visualize
andact on events. *IBM Intelligent Operations Center for Smarter Cities offers a centralized, real-time
collaborative environment for planning, organizing, monitoring and sharing information across city
departments and agencies.It processes data feeds and event information from individual
departments and then presents that information in a citywide view.

NO.5 Which of the below is a primary client need for smarter buildings management?
A. Operations management
B. Energy management
C. Space management
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Smarter buildings Integrating physical and digital infrastructuresto reduce energy, optimize space and
lower operating costs.

NO.6 What type of help are city leaders around the globe looking for by partnering with IBM for
Smarter Cities?
A. Turn data into actionable information
B. Develop a solution roadmap that is specific to their needs
C. Harness real world examples that can be used to crystallize their actions and champion their own
cause.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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The latest Citrix Certification 1Y0-351 exam training methods

The Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentails and Networking exam is divided into the following sections:
1. Configuring basic NetScaler settings;
2. Configuring network-related settings of the NetScaler implementation;
3. Securing the NetScaler implementation and traffic;
4. Configuring Load Balancing on NetScaler for backend servers and traffic;
5. Configuring SSL Offloading;
6. Configuring acceleration and optimization of traffic-handling;
7. Customizing NetScaler traffic-handling;
8. Monitoring of network-related activities and performance using monitoring tools;
9. Troubleshooting issues on NetScaler
The 351 exam was developed to measure the minimum



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NO.1 Scenario: An engineer has configured an SSL virtual server and has bound a service group of
type HTTP containing several servers. The service group is UP but the virtual server is in a DOWN
state. The engineer has verified that the SSL feature is enabled.
What should the engineer do to ensure that the virtual server shows as UP?
A. Add a monitor that checks for HTTP.
B. Change the service group to type SSL.
C. Bind an SSL certificate to the virtual server.
D. Configure the service group to use port 443.
E. Change the monitor for a larger time out period.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Scenario: The network engineer is unable to access a specific SSL site through the NetScaler.
While reviewing traces on the NetScaler, the network engineer noticed "Handshake" failures from
the server.
These handshake failures could be the result of the virtual server __________. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
A. only allowing TLS
B. not allowing SSLv3
C. not allowing correct ciphers
D. configured to demand client authentication
Answer: C

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NO.3 Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on
the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the
service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors' tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Scenario: A NetScaler environment uses two-factor authentication and the second
authentication method is AD. A user logs in to the environment but does NOT receive access to the
resources that the user should have access to.
How can an engineer determine the AD authentication issue on the NetScaler?
A. Check NSlogs.
B. Use nsconmsg.
C. Use the cat aaad.debug command.
D. Check the authorization configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Scenario: A network engineer has configured GSLB for a multisite environment. All GSLB
services show as UP with an UP MEP status.
The engineer has observed that DNS queries are directed to the SNIP of the NetScaler; however, no
DNS response is being received.
How can the engineer resolve this issue?
A. Add an ADNS service on the SNIP.
B. Change the DNS delegation to the NSIP.
C. Create a load balancing virtual server for DNS.
D. Select the "Send all "active" service IPs' in response (MIR)" option.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A network engineer wants to configure a NetScaler for load balancing Voice over IP traffic
(VoIP).
Which hash method is the best fit for VoIP traffic?
A. Call ID
B. Source IP
C. Destination IP
D. Domain name
Answer: A

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NO.7 Scenario: A network engineer suspects that there is a duplex mismatch in the network
configuration. The NSIP address is 10.10.1.206.
How can the administrator verify the configuration in this scenario?
A. Run the 'netstat -r' command.
B. Run the show IP 10.10.1.206 command.
C. Run the start nstrace -level 10 command.
D. Check for the interface configuration in the GUI.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which NetScaler feature could be used to stall policy processing to retrieve information from an
external server?
A. Responder
B. HTTP callout
C. AppExpert template
D. EdgeSight monitoring
Answer: B

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3M00030A - Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) Avaya Professional Design Specialist (APDS) Online Test
SynopsisThis curriculum test validates your knowledge and mastery of the requirements and considerations for designing Avaya Contact Center Select.You should be able to correctly and successfully position Avaya products and solutions to address the customer business issues in the early stages of the sales cycle. Please read the questions thoroughly before answering. Some questions are complex and may need to be read twice in order to be understood completely and answered correctly. The assessment has 45 questions and the minimum passing score is 72%.
Avaya Learning PolicyAvaya Learning policy allows three pre-course attempts for all online tests. If you do not pass the test you must re-register to attempt it again. If you have not passed the test after the third attempt, you will need to complete the associated learning activities and call the Avaya Learning Center Help Desk requesting a re-set for that specific test.




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NO.1 Which are three characteristics of the typical business with fewer than 2,000 Employees / 30 to
250 Agents? (Select three.)
A. The business believes that contact center capabilities are essential
B. The business applies technology to address a business problem
C. The CEO/Owner is most likely the buyer
D. IT is the buyer or strong influencer
E. The business lacks technical knowledge
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Which two statements best describe the Avaya Midmarket vision? (Select two.)
A. Bring multichannel capabilities with simplicity and value to midsize businesses
B. Simplify the network by extending the cloud all the way up to the end user access point to the
network
C. Move from one-off interactions and transactions to always aware customer experiences
D. Extends our innovation in customer experience management to midsize businesses
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which are capabilities of Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)? (Select four.)
A. Outbound calling campaigns
B. Home worker agents
C. Customer satisfaction surveys
D. Call recording
E. Multimedia agents
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.4 Which of the following are deployment options for Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)? (Select
three.)
A. ACCS Software Appliance Deployment Option
B. ACCS DVD Deployment Option
C. ACCS Small Server Deployment Option
D. ACCS Hardware Appliance Deployment Option
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) comes with two sample Supervisor User Accounts called
Reporting 1 and Reporting 2, which are some of the tasks that the Supervisor Users can perform?
(Select five.)
A. Assigning agent to skills
B. Producing all historical reporting
C. Adding Administrator Users
D. Producing all real-time reporting
E. Managing agent and skills
F. Making minimal configuration changes, for instance add activity codes, view skill setup, and view
agent configurations
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.6 For voice calls which are the three integrations to IP Office from Avaya Contact Center Select
(ACCS)? (Select three.)
A. Voice Networking
B. Computer Telephony Integration (CTI) using Telephony Application Program Interface Direct
(TAPID)
C. SIP TR87 for advanced CTI control
D. Sync Service for Users
E. SIP for call control
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 Scenario:
In connection with a CCT implementation project for the Government of Mourito, Avaya has
partnered with a leading Distributor in the country. Avaya is required to import certain telecom
equipment into Mourito. Avaya arranges for the shipment and same reaches Mourito port. In order
to release the shipment, a no-objection letter is required from the customs unit in charge of the port.
This is standard operating procedure in Mourito vis-a-vis overseas shipments. Typically, it takes about
7-14 working days to receive the letter. The Distributor, citing project exigency, pays a sum of $150 to
a senior customs official and obtains the NOC. What prompts the Distributor to make the payment is
that facilitation payments are customary and legal in Mourito.
What breach, if any, has the Distributor committed? (Select one.)
A. None, the payment made by the Distributor constituted facilitation payment which is customary
under the laws of Mourito.
B. The Distributor has breached Avaya's policy since Avaya prohibits facilitation payments.
Answer: B

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NO.8 With Avaya Contact Center Select running IP Office Server Edition (SE) on a DL360 server, what
is the maximum capacity for incoming customer calls? (Click and drag the correct option to the space
below.)
A. 125
B. 250
C. 375
D. 187
Answer: C

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